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#5 - anonymous (08/30/2013) [-]
2 things about this statement:
1) it's most likely true that pi has that property.
2) this does NOT follow from pi being infinite non-repeating.
What if after a certain while the number 2 no longer appears for example. It's still infinite and non-repeating but it might have missed some things containing the number 2 before it stops appearing. Mathematicians have not been able to prove this yet.

posted as anonymous cause last time I tried to reason about this on funnyjunk (yes it's a repost) I got thumbed down hard with other people answering "I study maths and you're right, I can't understand why you get red thumbed"
#6 to #5 - anonymous (08/30/2013) [-]
yeh you rpobably got thumbed down because u dont understand it
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