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What do you think? Give us your opinion. Anonymous comments allowed.
#5 to #3

amuzen (07/07/2013) []
no its not, the probability you'll draw the 2 is 1 in 52 then the probability you'll draw an ace is 4 in 51 then 3 in 50 then 2 in 49 then 1 in 48 because you can't draw the same card twice.
I believe you multiply the chances so it's
(1/52)*(4/51)*(3/50)*(2/49)*(1/48)
1/12994800 unless my basic math is off haven't had to do algebra in like 3 years.
I believe you multiply the chances so it's
(1/52)*(4/51)*(3/50)*(2/49)*(1/48)
1/12994800 unless my basic math is off haven't had to do algebra in like 3 years.
#17 to #5

WillyMyAss (07/08/2013) []
Why did you ad the 2 in equasion (sorry if thats spelled wrong).
But I think he only means the aces, so it's:
(4/51)*(3/50)*(2/49)*(1*48) = 1/249900
But I think he only means the aces, so it's:
(4/51)*(3/50)*(2/49)*(1*48) = 1/249900