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> hey anon, wanna give your opinion?
asd
#10 - anon id: 53d461e0
Reply 0 123456789123345869
(07/04/2013) [-]
e^-ln(x)...

So... -(x)...
User avatar #15 to #10 - anonymoose
Reply +3 123456789123345869
(07/04/2013) [-]
Nope, 1/(x)
#14 to #10 - ilgattozaiga
Reply +1 123456789123345869
(07/04/2013) [-]
e^-lnx
=e^ln(x^-1)
=e^ln(1/x)
=1/x
#12 to #10 - anon id: 3354ef68
Reply 0 123456789123345869
(07/04/2013) [-]
no, actually that would be 1/x. Since e^-Ln(x) equals ( e^Ln(x) )^-1 = (x)^-1 = 1/x