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So we had our chemistry quarterly today
By: smoshanthony
My chemistry teacher's a pretty funny guy, this kinda stuff is common. Just thought I'd share.
i! ' E equation w
Won.
Won.
...
 
What do you think? Give us your opinion. Anonymous comments allowed.
#19

bjornkrage (04/03/2014) []
my chemistry teacher did this, except he put the "just kidding" at the end of the entire test.
#14

anonymous (04/03/2014) [+] (6 replies)
This is just a simple infinite well problem in quatum mechanics.
The solution is
sqrt(2/L)sin((n*Pi*x)/L)
Where L is the width, n is the state/mode, and x is the position in the well.
This is really simple stuff. Really just a solution to the SchrÃ¶dinger equation.
The solution is
sqrt(2/L)sin((n*Pi*x)/L)
Where L is the width, n is the state/mode, and x is the position in the well.
This is really simple stuff. Really just a solution to the SchrÃ¶dinger equation.
#11

leglesslegolegolas (04/03/2014) []
I'm mathematically disabled (aka stupid), so I have no idea what any of that is.
#8

hawaiianhappysauce (04/03/2014) [+] (2 replies)
I know how to solve the equation, but I don't remember any "node" terms involved.
Here is the solution:
When V = infinite the wave function has to be zero because there is 0 probability of it being found in that region. When V=0 then it doesn't matter what the wave funciton is because V(x) * W = 0. We set the boundary to be W(0)=W(L)=0 (like i said, W has to be zero when V is infinite).
The equation simplifies to:
h^2 / 2m * Laplacian(W) = i*h d/dt (W) = E*W(x)
We then let k = sqrt ( 2mE/h^2)
now we rewrite the PDE as an ODE:
d^2 / dx^2 (W(x)) + k^2 W(x) = 0
This is solved using ODE methods.
Here is the solution:
When V = infinite the wave function has to be zero because there is 0 probability of it being found in that region. When V=0 then it doesn't matter what the wave funciton is because V(x) * W = 0. We set the boundary to be W(0)=W(L)=0 (like i said, W has to be zero when V is infinite).
The equation simplifies to:
h^2 / 2m * Laplacian(W) = i*h d/dt (W) = E*W(x)
We then let k = sqrt ( 2mE/h^2)
now we rewrite the PDE as an ODE:
d^2 / dx^2 (W(x)) + k^2 W(x) = 0
This is solved using ODE methods.
#6

directasshault ONLINE (04/03/2014) [+] (1 reply)
So... whats a quarterly?
Is that like a midterm... but instead of having it on the middle of a semester its a quarter in?
Is that like a midterm... but instead of having it on the middle of a semester its a quarter in?