So we had our chemistry quarterly today. My chemistry teacher's a pretty funny guy, this kinda stuff is common. Just thought I'd share.. i! ' E equation w Won. test chemistry Tenth grade
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So we had our chemistry quarterly today

My chemistry teacher's a pretty funny guy, this kinda stuff is common. Just thought I'd share.

i! ' E equation w
Won.
...
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Submitted: 04/02/2014
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User avatar #1 - jinxter (04/02/2014) [+] (2 replies)
Someone solve it...
User avatar #4 to #1 - murphypop (04/03/2014) [-]
I'm not solving **** until they say why they're allowing the electron potential to be infinity after L instead of a rational number based on a function of distance.
User avatar #27 - timmylickens (04/03/2014) [-]
I'm not in college yet and this stuff scares me
User avatar #21 - joeyliquid (04/03/2014) [+] (5 replies)
Eh? Physics in chemistry? Get out.
User avatar #19 - bjornkrage (04/03/2014) [-]
my chemistry teacher did this, except he put the "just kidding" at the end of the entire test.
User avatar #17 - PenguinsOfMars (04/03/2014) [-]
>Federal Department of Redundancy Department
#14 - anonymous (04/03/2014) [+] (6 replies)
This is just a simple infinite well problem in quatum mechanics.
The solution is
sqrt(2/L)sin((n*Pi*x)/L)
Where L is the width, n is the state/mode, and x is the position in the well.
This is really simple stuff. Really just a solution to the Schrödinger equation.
User avatar #11 - leglesslegolegolas (04/03/2014) [-]
I'm mathematically disabled (aka stupid), so I have no idea what any of that is.
User avatar #8 - hawaiianhappysauce (04/03/2014) [+] (2 replies)
I know how to solve the equation, but I don't remember any "node" terms involved.

Here is the solution:

When V = infinite the wave function has to be zero because there is 0 probability of it being found in that region. When V=0 then it doesn't matter what the wave funciton is because V(x) * W = 0. We set the boundary to be W(0)=W(L)=0 (like i said, W has to be zero when V is infinite).

The equation simplifies to:

-h^2 / 2m * Laplacian(W) = i*h d/dt (W) = E*W(x)

We then let k = sqrt ( 2mE/h^2)

now we rewrite the PDE as an ODE:
d^2 / dx^2 (W(x)) + k^2 W(x) = 0

This is solved using ODE methods.
#7 - anonymous (04/03/2014) [+] (1 reply)
Physics is harder.
User avatar #6 - directasshault ONLINE (04/03/2014) [+] (1 reply)
So... whats a quarterly?

Is that like a midterm... but instead of having it on the middle of a semester its a quarter in?
User avatar #5 - liuur (04/03/2014) [-]
Dude I barely passed calc 1.
#3 - anonymous (04/03/2014) [+] (2 replies)
mathexplain, solve this **** please!
User avatar #2 - sirbonzaiatak (04/02/2014) [-]
easy as pi
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